Put Away vs. Divorce Discussion 5
RW You cannot ignore this passage while claiming to be a true teacher of the word of God regarding divorce, and at the same time maintain honesty. It is Impossible. Deuteronomy 24:4-4 What is significant about Deuteronomy 24:1-4 When I began to seriously study and debate with numerous individual the MDR issue, this text was scarcely being considered at all, which is unbelievable considering that it is the hub of the issue. The order of the command of Moses was: write a bill of divorce, put it into her hand, and “send her away” (shalach). That there are three separate commands involved in a divorce is evident. The Hebrew word shalach is translated “send her away” and is equivalent ot the Greek word apoluo, which means “put away.” It is important to not that Strong nowhere mentions divorce in his definition of shalach. If the “sending away” in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 does not mean divorce, on what basis can we conclude that the Greek equivalent does?
CW Jesus NEVER focused on the METHOD of "putting away"/separating what HE joined together. He focused on the SEPARATING itself as something that was SIN. Why? Because those who separate/try to separate/including the 3rd parties.......are trying to UNDO a work of God. Jesus said once this work is accomplished (the ONE FLESH created by God), it is NO LONGER TWO, but now ONE. Paul teaches further that it is only DEATH which separates this ONE flesh.....another work of GOD. Man's piece of paper can never undo a work of God......that is why Jesus and Paul both teach that it is ADULTERY to join with another before the death (not adultery, not desertion, not abuse, not drunkenness, not drug addiction, not gender identity issues, not porn addiction, etc, etc, etc) of one's spouse.
LJ This is hilarious, the above asserts that the putting away that Moses allowed in Dt 24 was the putting away, the wrong kind? Jesus referred to this as what Moses allowed. So, Moses allowed what RW says God said was the wrong kind of divorce? RW, quote the section in Dt 24 and then insert in brackets what you are reading into the text. That will manifest the extent of mental gymnastics you are engaging in. As if God was incapable of speaking plainly: we need RW to tell us what is meant.
LJ Written to RW, who is propagating one of the most destructive explanations about divorce and remarriage. It amounts to maintaining that Dt 24:1-4 is still God's law and so divorce is OK under the NT as long as a proper certificate of divorce is provided for the exiting wife. To that heresy I respond: Dt 24:1-4 was a law added LATER, AFTER the absolute truth that was declared at Creation in Gen 2. Jesus abolishes the inferior law imposed because of the hardness of their hearts and focuses on the law established BEFORE the fall in the Garden. Why? Because Jesus came to redeem man from their fallen state. To be risen with Christ affords the Christian the honor of being put under the higher law established while man was not fallen!
But YOU RW, are fallen from grace by maintaining adherence to a law that was instituted BECAUSE of the unregenerated fallen state; BECAUSE of hardness of hearts. Gal 5:4. How can you continue to ignore the REASON for Dt 24:1 in the first place? How can you not perceive that the higher law, which was established at Creation, before the fall, (Gen 2:24/Mark 10:2-12), is what Jesus is calling for under his NT? Your position is mind-boggling. You deny Jesus!
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