Jeremiah 3 – God Divorced Israel
And none of you, no not one, can EVER at any time find any Scriptural support that God would not lead someone to not only divorce but remarriage when it was God Himself that “divorced” His chosen people, and established a new covenant in the blood of Christ.
The problem with that thought is that you made an incomplete and in some ways false statement. Did God divorce Israel? Yes. Did He make a BETTER covenant which she is able to be a part of? YES. Did He still call her “wife” AFTER the divorce? YES. God did not dump Israel to get a “new” wife. The “old” and “new” were grafted in together.
Ps. Edited to add: Romans 11:15-32, Ephesians 2:12-22.
Jeremiah 3:6-11 6 During the reign of King Josiah, the Lord said to me, “Have you seen what faithless Israel has done? She has gone up on every high hill and under every spreading tree and has committed adultery there. 7 I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me but she did not, and her unfaithful sister Judah saw it. 8 I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. Yet I saw that her unfaithful sister Judah had no fear; she also went out and committed adultery. 9 Because Israel’s immorality mattered so little to her, she defiled the land and committed adultery with stone and wood. 10 In spite of all this, her unfaithful sister Judah did not return to me with all her heart, but only in pretense,” declares the Lord. 11 The Lord said to me, “Faithless Israel is more righteous than unfaithful Judah.
Another great passage…….it shows that the FOLLOWERS of sin who have already seen God’s hand deal and then go ahead and SIN ANYWAYS, will receive more judgment from the Lord (viewed as MORE guilty). I noticed you did not post the other part of this passage: “Turn, O backsliding children, saith the Lord; for I AM MARRIED TO YOU…………” Jeremiah 3:14 Notice the Lord says this AFTER He has given a “bill of divorce”…………..a bill many of you say DISSOLVES a marriage. Is the Lord confused about the power of a “bill of divorcement” …………..or are we?
Concerning Israel and Judah… Israel was divorced, but a new covenant would be given (Jesus) with a new bride (Christian Church).
The “new” is grafted in with the “old”. see Rom. 11. Israel is very much included in that.
So while you may see them as blind and thus they commit all sorts of immorality, and they are to be pitied, but the other spouse is required to NOT be an enabler of their sins. Do you understand this?
We are not to be enablers of the sins of others. And thus while some are given to compassion for the wayward, it may not be “right” in God’s sight for the spouse to do so IF it enables the wayward spouse to further their own condemnation.
I too don’t believe in being an “enabler” of sin, but you discount all the scriptures I have provided on the TRUTH that it is God’s heart/mind/will to restore, not to reject and replace. You cannot find that in His Word.
You keep saying that God rejected Israel and took a new wife. He did not. The Gentiles were grafted in…….the two were made ONE through Christ. Read and meditate on Ephesians 2:12-22, Romans 11……….God has NOT forsaken Israel…………part of her has already been grafted back in……..Through US—-the gentiles—-She too will receive the mercy we have, in HIS TIMING.
The old covenant is no longer – the remnant (not all of Israel – but those saved out) is incorporated with the gentile believers in Christ.
It is a new covenant – a new marriage… They bride is not the same.
It is not a different dispensation, but in fact, a new covenant.
Of course it is not the same covenant. The Lord said He makes a BETTER covenant and Israel is WELCOMED into it, she is not rejected. Did you read Ephesians 2:12-22 and Romans 11? What are you thoughts on that as far as Israel’s role in the New Covenant?
However, the Lord is no longer joined to Israel. He is joined to His church, of which Jews may be co-partakers, through Christ. Again, divorce is not a “separation” of people, it is a dissolution of the marriage covenant. And since God designed it, He enforces the dissolution. So then if two people who are divorced get back together without a marriage covenant and have sex, they are committing a sexual sin because that person is not their spouse. They would have to enter into a NEW marriage covenant in order for that to be allowed.
You really do need to study more about Israel. God promised a BETTER covenant to THEM. We (the gentile believers) are CO-HEIRS. God did not dump Israel to get another wife. Gentile believers as well as believing ISRAEL make up the ONE BRIDE.
Jeremiah 3………………… Talks about God pleading after divorce with a wayward Israel…. Israel does not marry after God sends her away…. so it really doesn’t apply.
Jesus (as well as Paul) states that a remarriage is adultery, so the “vows” were null anyways—–the “married” were already married to someone else—-not free to vow to another. Scripture is very clear that one CAN repent from adultery and return to one’s covenant spouse. (Hosea).
I will ask a question: Did God commit adultery when He divorced Israel (the 10 northern tribes) but then marries the Church? We see those tribes mentioned as being on the earth and in heaven at the end in Revelations, so Israel certainly did not die.
God did not take a “NEW” bride. Read Romans 11. The gentile believers were GRAFTED IN to the entity that God took to Himself which ALREADY existed (including them from Israel). Only those who walked in disbelief were “cut off”…………but they could always return.
One thing is for sure God did divorce Isreal. Now surely he didn't sin when he did this and he used adultery as a reason for doing so. So how can one argue that the exception applies to the betrothal view only?
Jeremiah 3 shows us that even AFTER God divorces Israel, He STILL calls her His wife (we find this same thing AFTER a divorce in the New Testament. This is exactly why Jesus says it is adultery AFTER a divorce: because a divorce does NOT dissolve the union God joins together.
Of course God took Israel back. I was only trying to show that Jer. 3 does not support the betrothal view.. Aparently God's see's adultery as a just cause. So God may not have actually gone through with the divorce but he at least shows us the introduction of a "bill of divorce" in that passage.
Divorce, as used by God in Jer 3 is a separation (physical), not a dissolution of the marriage, which is how the modern church now views divorce. In the early church, divorce did not entitle one to remarriage. As a matter of fact, all the writings I could find in the first 3 centuries of the church all spoke of a “re” marriage being adultery, not a real marriage in God’s eyes—-even if the civil authorities said it was a real marriage. They viewed remarriage (while one has a living spouse) as an invalid marriage—-much like most Christians view homosexual marriage. Yes, the civil law see these are married, but they are not “joined” by God—-they are in sin.
The Lord put away Israel for adultery and he did take her back, but he also says that they are no longer husband and wife. This shows that there is no betrothal view.
I dont’ focus on the betrothal view. It is one interpretation. The fact is this: there is overwhelming evidence in scripture that the marriages God joins (original, widows, etc) endure until death, when God uses the vehicle He created: death, to dissolve the bond and free the one alive to stay single or marry again. As for the verse above, could you send me that specific verse?
God in the OT divorced Isreal for persitant adultery. Now, if God can divorce for adultery then the Matthew exception clause must include adultery. One cannot take them back after divorce because the scritpure says that the land will be polluted. So, this means that the Matthew exception clause must include physical persistent adultery.
See, YOU add, “physical persistent adultery”........where does the Word of God say that? Jesus defined adultery as including LUSTFUL looking. So, if you believe that the exception clause is for adultery.....then you are saying that Jesus is ok with divorcing someone, even 1 time, for looking lustfully at another. I completely disagree with this assertion. I also disagree that any divorce of people God joined together (original marriages), gives permission to marry another BEFORE their spouse dies.
As for pollution........Gomer was polluted, no? Does she not represent the church and Hosea represent God? Gomer was a sinner BEFORE Hosea married her.......and she continued sinning AFTER he married her. Even so, he bought her back. He did not divorce her and find another wife......which is exactly what God did with Israel too. He did not find another “wife”. Divorce was “space between”.....not a dissolution with intention of replacement.
Gomer did not enter into a 2nd marriage after divorce so this does not apply. She did not create a 2nd marriage covenant. If she had she could not have returned. Again, Isreal was unfaithful. This is the reason God gave divorce.
Actually, Gomer says, “I will go and return to my first husband; for then was better with me than now.” His. 2:7
Michal made another “covenant” with Paltiel......but her first husband, David, took her away from her second husband. Why? Because David was her lawful husband in the eyes of God, her covenant husband.
God still called Israel His wife AFTER the bill of divorcement because a divorce does not dissolve the marriage/union. THAT is why, if a divorce occurs, the parties are NOT free to marry others without them becoming adulterers/adulteresses (a label).
But David didn't divorce her. So she was made to be in adultery as she was still married.
True, but she was “defiled”......and made another covenant. Many say today, if you make a NEW covenant, no matter what, THAT covenant supersedes the previous one. Obviously, in David’s case......and in Jesus’ teachings, we see this just isn’t so. The first covenant STANDS.
Point is this: Jesus says divorce does not FREE, hence remarriage AFTER a divorce is adultery. A “new” union does not nullify a covenant created by God Himself.
I didn’t say Mt. 19:9 is not true. I said your rendering of it is not true because it contradicts all other scriptures which teach otherwise. I also say your rendering of I Cor. 7:13-15 is not accurate as Paul never gives permission for a new spouse.
What I have found is this: Most who hold your view are not even consistent. When you say, “i believe marriage is for life”, you ACTUALLY mean: marriage SHOULD be for life, God wants it to be for life, etc.......not that it truly IS for life. One “exception” leads to EVERY exception. I have yet to see a church that holds firmly that adultery FREES both parties, but divorces that occur where there was no adultery (is that even possible with Jesus’ definition of adultery?), are BINDING and remarriage is forbidden. Most teach that if a remarriage occurs in such cases, THOSE marriages are now binding. Where do we find such a teaching in scripture—-that a divorce, a new vow, a marriage certificate, etc nullifies a covenant marriage, made one flesh by God? I have yet to see scripture to prove such a thing.