You can play a game and say his wife, but what does the text of my BIBLE say? He that is joined to a harlot is what? ONE FLESH with her. So who is he now ”one flesh” with…..his wife or his harlot?
One flesh in I Corinthians 6 and God joined marriage are two different things. Jesus calls remarriage “adultery”, not a God joined marriage. There is a sin called fornication which is what I Corinthians 6 is addressing—–it is illicit sex. It is not the relationship God joins in Gen. nor the Gospel accounts of marriage. If you are being “joined” with a harlot, it means that you are having illicit relations with someone who has joined themselves with many others. Unless you are a proponent of “sex marries”, then each and every time someone has sex they are in actuality marrying that person and leaving their previous spouse. Adultery would be non existent as the new person would be their new spouse, therefore no sin would exist………. the one flesh spoken of in I Cor. 6 was NOT marriage. I’m not quite sure what your point is with I Cor. 6. Is it that you are saying all sexual encounters are what “marries” us to others? Maybe if you clarified a bit I could answer your question better.
As to a divorced person never really being married———in some cases I do believe that. If they married a person who was not “free”, they committed adultery, they did not enter into a lawful marriage—-one which was joined by God. When they divorced, they were in actuality leaving the sin behind……….the sin of adultery. Whether they understood it as such or not is moot. Knowledge of sin or lack of knowledge does not alter the nature of sin. Transgression of God’s commands are sin whether we understand the transgression or not. The difference is those who do “see” and commit sin anyways appear scripturally to have more responsibility before God than those who do not “see”.
1 Corinthians 6:16 ” Do you not know that he who joins himself to a prostitute becomes one body with her? For, as it is written, “The two shall become one.”
So this is absolved in the case of a prostitute but not for a divorced woman? How can this be so? It does not make any sense to me, can someone help me with it?
What we are saying is the divorced woman will make her husband an adulterer, but the one who has slept around is okay to remarry because she is now a virgin, why can’t the divorced be a new virgin too?
The Lord in the NT says that a woman who departs from her husband is to remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband(I Cor. 7:10-11). We also see that Jesus said anyone who marries a divorced person commits adultery. It can only be that the divorced is still bound to their covenant partner. That is why it’s adultery to marry someone else.
Divorce does not give someone renewed virginity……….as a person divorced from their covenant spouse is bound to them until he/she dies (Rom. 7:2-3, I Cor. 7:39). Jesus did not do away with the Law of marriage. As you can see in the NT, what He did was bring marriage standards back to the creation intent——–and expects us to forgive each other for sins and work for reconciliation.
Since it is common now days for people to lose their virginity outside of marriage, when they do marry is it invalid? As I understand scripture on this, premarital relations DO join bodies as ‘one flesh’ according to Paul’s teachings. However, I’m not sure GOD joins illicit relations as one flesh. If He did, would the sin of fornication exist?
Absolutely correct. God does not “join” sin. If that were the case, every spouse who has cheated is now married to the other person—then sleeps with their spouse and is married back to them, etc, etc, etc.
Throughout scripture we see that marriage involves vows to each other and the leaving of father and mother and cleaving to their spouse and public acknowledgement of the union. Illicit relations are just that—illicit relations. sex does not equal marriage. Marriage entails so much more.
There remains then the question are they to remain celibate for life after having had sex outside of marriage, or can they marry someone else – which, from that interpretation, would be REmarriage? You say those people CAN remarry. But the others who divorced can’t. Sorry, the argument is not just. God forgives BOTH and allows them to remarry, in the Lord.
Sorry, but sex does not equal marriage in scripture. Notice in the OT passage that (name deleted) posted that AFTER the man had relations with the woman he had to marry her—–IF her father allowed it. Her father could disallow it as well, so marriage is NOT required for sexual relations. We also see in scripture that harlots were NOT considered married women due to having sexual relations with men. They were harlots………..and they were able to marry lawfully after being a harlot and their 1st marriages were never spoken of as being adultery.
Thank you, yes, I Corinthians 6:15-20 were the verses I was looking for. I need to quit trying to search the concordance in my modern translations and do all my searching in the KJV. Based on these verses it seems that the first person of the opposite gender one is physically intimate with is one’s spouse while both people are living.
I don’t see that at all. In the OT, AFTER a man had taken a woman’s virginity, if the father approved, he then had to marry her and NEVER divorce her all the days of her life.
We also see in Hosea, that Gomer was ALREADY a prostitute when Hosea came along and he was not considered an adulterer by God for marrying her. We also see that with Rahab.
I do see that there is a “oneness” of flesh in regards to sexual intimacy, but it does not appear that sexual relations=marriage…………
Corinthians 8:15 Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Shall I then take away the members of Christ and make them members of a prostitute? May it never be! 16 Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, “THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH.” 17 But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit with Him. 18 Flee immorality. Every other sin that a man commits is outside the body, but the immoral man sins against his own body. 19 Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and that you are not your own? 20 For you have been bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body.
We glorify the Lord with our body and not become one flesh with a harlot. May it never be!
Do you agree that you are not one flesh with a harlot cindy? or are you still one flesh with your mate?
Yes, I am one flesh with my mate, (name deleted)—–because the LORD joined me to him. The Lord did not join me in immorality to a harlot.
This is God’s word for the body 1Corinthians8:15 Shall I then take away the members of Christ and make them members of a prostitute? May it never be! 16 Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, “THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH.”
And the rest of that scripture calls believers to FLEE sexual immorality, because we have been bought with a price……… Earlier in that passage Paul exhorts believers to not defraud the brethren (see also I Thessalonians. 4:3-8), yet what we see in churches today is that brother so and so has taken to himself brother so and so’s wife………..and sister so and so has taken sister so and so’s husband. It is grieving to the Lord. The Lord says in I Thessalonians 4:8, that he/she who defrauds the brethren in such a manner, rejecting His Word, rejects Christ. That is a very frightening thing for those who are involved in such immorality.
You can’t call your mate a harlot if your mate sleeps around with other people as you believe right? and you are joined with that person for as long as you live.
Scripture teaches that I am ONE with my mate for life—-God taking two and making one—so that THEY ARE NO LONGER TWO. If he commits adultery (through extra-marital relations or remarriage), God calls them to FLEE sexual immorality. Would I continue having relations with him while he is being unfaithful? No, but I wouldn’t forsake my marriage vows……….to love, honor, and cherish, ’til death do us part. He may, but I won’t.
Grace and peace unto you in the name of our Master Teacher and Deliverer, Jesus the Anointed One. I can’t express adequately how profoundly informed, inspired and instructed through this site. This ministry is greatly needed and appreciated. I won’t take up much time now, but if you can instruct me on how to share my testimony I will be so obliged to do so. My question is this: If a woman marries a man on a mutually agreed upon business arrangement then the gets that marriage annulled, having never consummated that union, did God join that union or no? If so then that would make a subsequent marriage an adulterous remarriage yes? Blessings to you and your entire household.
I appreciate you writing about this. I think this is somewhat a common question (does consummation=marriage in God’s sight). If we go to Mt. 1:18-24, I think we can see it is the vow of marriage before witnesses, possibly including a legal transaction(every culture is different in that regard) that actually makes one bound to the union. In the betrothal process, once betrothed they were considered husband/wife (they entered into a legal agreement before witnesses). It took a divorce, or death to end that marriage. It was very different than our “engagement” process where we promise we will marry each other, but with the knowledge this is a time where the promise can be broken.
Now, in the betrothal, the marriage was not “completed” until the daughter leaves her father’s home to live as a wife (which is what Joseph did when the angel assured him Mary had not been unfaithful). In their case, once Joseph took Mary from her father’s house, they were husband/wife even though they did not consummate their marriage until after Jesus was born. So, it is clear in that case, consummation does not =marriage. Hope I answered your question. Blessings in Him, Cindy