And none of you, no not one, can EVER at any time find any Scriptural support that God would not lead someone to not only divorce but remarriage when it was God Himself that “divorced” His chosen people, and established a new covenant in the blood of Christ.
The problem with that thought is that you made an incomplete and in some ways false statement. Did God divorce Israel? Yes. Did He make a BETTER covenant which she is able to be a part of? YES. Did He still call her “wife” AFTER the divorce? YES. God did not dump Israel to get a “new” wife. The “old” and “new” were grafted in together.
Ps. Edited to add: Romans 11:15-32, Ephesians 2:12-22.
Jeremiah 3:6-11 6 During the reign of King Josiah, the Lord said to me, “Have you seen what faithless Israel has done? She has gone up on every high hill and under every spreading tree and has committed adultery there. 7 I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me but she did not, and her unfaithful sister Judah saw it. 8 I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. Yet I saw that her unfaithful sister Judah had no fear; she also went out and committed adultery. 9 Because Israel’s immorality mattered so little to her, she defiled the land and committed adultery with stone and wood. 10 In spite of all this, her unfaithful sister Judah did not return to me with all her heart, but only in pretense,” declares the Lord. 11 The Lord said to me, “Faithless Israel is more righteous than unfaithful Judah.
Another great passage…….it shows that the FOLLOWERS of sin who have already seen God’s hand deal and then go ahead and SIN ANYWAYS, will receive more judgment from the Lord (viewed as MORE guilty). I noticed you did not post the other part of this passage: “Turn, O backsliding children, saith the Lord; for I AM MARRIED TO YOU…………” Jeremiah 3:14 Notice the Lord says this AFTER He has given a “bill of divorce”…………..a bill many of you say DISSOLVES a marriage. Is the Lord confused about the power of a “bill of divorcement” …………..or are we?
Concerning Israel and Judah… Israel was divorced, but a new covenant would be given (Jesus) with a new bride (Christian Church).
The “new” is grafted in with the “old”. see Rom. 11. Israel is very much included in that.
So while you may see them as blind and thus they commit all sorts of immorality, and they are to be pitied, but the other spouse is required to NOT be an enabler of their sins. Do you understand this?
We are not to be enablers of the sins of others. And thus while some are given to compassion for the wayward, it may not be “right” in God’s sight for the spouse to do so IF it enables the wayward spouse to further their own condemnation.
I too don’t believe in being an “enabler” of sin, but you discount all the scriptures I have provided on the TRUTH that it is God’s heart/mind/will to restore, not to reject and replace. You cannot find that in His Word.
You keep saying that God rejected Israel and took a new wife. He did not. The Gentiles were grafted in…….the two were made ONE through Christ. Read and meditate on Ephesians 2:12-22, Romans 11……….God has NOT forsaken Israel…………part of her has already been grafted back in……..Through US—-the gentiles—-She too will receive the mercy we have, in HIS TIMING.
The old covenant is no longer – the remnant (not all of Israel – but those saved out) is incorporated with the gentile believers in Christ.
It is a new covenant – a new marriage… They bride is not the same.
It is not a different dispensation, but in fact, a new covenant.
Of course it is not the same covenant. The Lord said He makes a BETTER covenant and Israel is WELCOMED into it, she is not rejected. Did you read Ephesians 2:12-22 and Romans 11? What are you thoughts on that as far as Israel’s role in the New Covenant?
However, the Lord is no longer joined to Israel. He is joined to His church, of which Jews may be co-partakers, through Christ. Again, divorce is not a “separation” of people, it is a dissolution of the marriage covenant. And since God designed it, He enforces the dissolution. So then if two people who are divorced get back together without a marriage covenant and have sex, they are committing a sexual sin because that person is not their spouse. They would have to enter into a NEW marriage covenant in order for that to be allowed.
You really do need to study more about Israel. God promised a BETTER covenant to THEM. We (the gentile believers) are CO-HEIRS. God did not dump Israel to get another wife. Gentile believers as well as believing ISRAEL make up the ONE BRIDE.
Jeremiah 3………………… Talks about God pleading after divorce with a wayward Israel…. Israel does not marry after God sends her away…. so it really doesn’t apply.
Jesus (as well as Paul) states that a remarriage is adultery, so the “vows” were null anyways—–the “married” were already married to someone else—-not free to vow to another. Scripture is very clear that one CAN repent from adultery and return to one’s covenant spouse. (Hosea).
I will ask a question: Did God commit adultery when He divorced Israel (the 10 northern tribes) but then marries the Church? We see those tribes mentioned as being on the earth and in heaven at the end in Revelations, so Israel certainly did not die.
God did not take a “NEW” bride. Read Romans 11. The gentile believers were GRAFTED IN to the entity that God took to Himself which ALREADY existed (including them from Israel). Only those who walked in disbelief were “cut off”…………but they could always return.